Hi all
Excuse me for the question, but I m a little confused.

I have PPPoE server with Public IP Pools and ( if no more public IPs ) privates ones.
I defined the local address of the PPP Profile with the first PRIVATE IP ( .1 ) of the first Private Pool ( ranging from .2 to 254).
If the client gets a Public IP, the trace from his computer to the world shows the 'local-address' as the first hop. If Private, same situation. Even can reach the MK box.
Is that correct? Somewhere I read that NO IP should be in the local-address.....but in this case, client receives no IP from any pool, nor can surf the net. Its disconnected!

Also the /IP address has the pools in it, but "with" or "without" those IPs in the IP address, no changes in the behavior of the client; can browse, email, everything without problems! Why should I populate this? Find no sense!

Regards

Andres.

Hi ntmanxp

Perhaps you misunderstand the concept of PPPoE

The LOCAL address on your profile is in fact the default gateway your PPPoE Clients will obtain. I suggest using eg 192.168.0.254 for the LOCAL address. For your clients' IP pool, use 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.0.253 and use that in your profile as REMOTE address.

[The general rule of thumb is to always make your gateway the highest IP in a range eg .254, reserve .1 to .9 for servers and use from .10 to .250 for clients. When it comes to wireless/PPPoE, use .254 as router IP (gateway) and use .1 to .250 for clients in pool]

Now all your clients will get different LOCAL IP'S (the user's local address is the same as the highsite's remote address), but all users will get the same default gateway (or LOCAL address on your highsite).

Does it make sense, or did I misunderstand your problem?

G