Wed Sep 29, 2010 10:26 pm
As long as router 1 and router 2 are connected what I posted will still work on router 2, on router 1 you'd create the same thing but instead of the gateway on the route with a routing mark being the ISP2 gateway IP address you'd enter the IP address of router 2.
But, depending on configuration, that's a stab in the dark. If you have a large meshed OSPF network between the ISPs and the customer the solution may well get very difficult to implement. That's a huge addition to the original question, and you should probably pay a consultant to get the ideal answer as it depends on many, many parameters.