I have a mikrotik router that will assign public IPs to my clients. I have a switch setup with Servers on VLAN 10 and assigned private IPs (10.x.x.x). The Mikrotik is connected to the switch using s trunk port. I have created 2 Vlan Interfaces one is 10 and the other is 20. VLAN 20 is assigned to the switchport in which my Basestation is connected. The IP of the base station is not in the same subnet as the servers but it is using a private IP address.

Will PPPoE work by assigning clients a public IP even though they are coming from the basestation which has a private IP. Also I have assigned 2 IPs to the VLAN 20 on the Mikrotik. One is a private address for the Basestation to use as a Gateway and the other IP is public for use as a gateway for the clients.

Am I going about this wrong? Should I change the IP of the Basestation to be public and in the same subnet as the clients and just created rules in the firewall to hide it from the rest of the Internet.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Will PPPoE work by assigning clients a public IP even though they are coming from the basestation which has a private IP.

Sure, because PPPoE itself is a protocol that runs on layer 2 of the network.

Most people (myself included) prefer to avoid any IP configuration at all on client-facing interfaces on which a PPPoE server is run, but I realize that in your setup this would make it near impossible to manage your base station (access point). It would be good if your base station (access point) is capable of 802.1q VLAN trunking on its LAN port and you would be able to configure separate VLANs for managment and user-traffic on the AP, thereby creating separate domains for management and user-traffic throughout your network.

--Tom

Thanks for the comment. I think that the basestation may do trunking. I'll have to check though. It is a Navini Basestation.