I've spent all day trying to get this to work, and still struggling, even though its a simple task.
What I want is to use a public IP from my routed subnet directly on a server inside my network (without NAT). Current setup is:
The ISP provides the following over the connection (IP's changed):
Static IP: 1.1.1.1/30 with a default gateway of 1.1.1.2
Routed subnet: 2.2.2.1/28 (I want to use all 16 IP's so not setting the IP on any of my interfaces). ISP routes all IPs to the static IP above so should be ok.
So I have:
ether5 - connection to ISP. Static IP set to 1.1.1.1/30
ether9 - my server - IP: 2.2.2.1, subnet: 255.255.255.255, gw: 1.1.1.1
I have also added the following firewall rules:
add action=accept chain=forward dst-address=2.2.2.1 in-interface=ether5 out-interface=ether9
add action=accept chain=forward in-interface=ether9 out-interface=ether5 src-address=2.2.2.1
and a nat bypass:
add action=accept chain=srcnat src-address=62.252.149.9
I can't ping or get any connectivity from the server. This should be simple but it just isnt working
As a test, I assigned the 2.2.2.1 IP directly to the ether5 interface on the Mikrotik and I can ping it from an external site, so I know the routed subnet is reaching the router.
Any ideas?
Thank you
James