hi
i think i need some help in understanding the possible effects of the following scenario and how to do this properly.
given i have 2 independent vlan domains each consisting of multiple switches running (r)stp:
domain A with switches A1 to An is using VLAN 100-200
domain B wich switches B1 to Bn is using VLAN 150-250.
lets assume all switches in each domain are connected via a redundant ring
both domains will have a loop free topology established (and theirfore their own rootbridge elected)by stp and everything is working just fine.
now i want to connect both topologies via at least two links (for redundancy) but only transfer VLAN 150-160 between the 2 domains. In my understanding this will cause the 2 - until now - separate domains to merge and elect one common root bridge.
Having one common root bridge would not cause much of a headache to me but lets assume following scenario:
.)switch A1 gets elected as root bridge
.)switch B1 and B2 connect directly to the root bridge
.)a packet in VLAN 200 enters switch B1 with a destination on B2
.)this packet will now be sent to A1 but the vlan filter will not allow this packet to be transferred via A1
Is this assumption correct?
what is the proper way of having a subset of the used vlans transfer between switches in an redundant stp-enabled topology?
any help is well appreciated
BR
Alex