I have two subnets A and B, with addresses 10.1.1.X and 10.1.2.X. Router R1 routes between them via eth0 and eth1 and all traffic is untagged.
Now I want to have a single VLAN99 that includes some nodes in A and some in B.
So I make a bridge with only LANID 99 allowed through it and make eth0 and eth1 ports in it.
But now I can't route between A 10.1.1.X and B 10.1.2.X via R1. The IP that was on eth0 and the one on eth1 are now attached to the bridge, even though the traffic through the bridge is limited to just the tagged VLAN traffic. I don't seem to able to access the untagged traffic on eth0 and eth1 anymore.
I guess I could force the untagged traffic on A to VLANID 10 and B to VLAN20 via pvid setups, and then route between VLAN10 and VLAN12, but then I would also need a separate management VLAN to get to R1 itself as the bridge cpu port can only belong to a single VLAN.
is there a more intuitive way?