I know this should be easy, but for some reason I can't seem to get it figured out.
All of our customers are given Private IP's behind our main MT router. IE: 10.1.1.x or 10.1.2.x etc. Normally when they want a public IP Address, we just assign them one which resides on our public interface and IP map it inside to their private IP. This works well for us and we have no problems with IPSec or anything else working.
We have a situation where the client wants the public IP to sit on their device. For some reason I can't make this happen.
I've chopped out a subnet from a class C (IE: 200.200.53.0/24) that we use addresses from to IP map through to the clients. Do I need to re-subnet that to make it work?
200.200.53.248/30
This gives me 2 useable IP's. My thought was to put one on our internal interface which faces them and the other on their device. This doesn't seem to be working. They can use their IP of 200.200.53.250 and ping our IP of 200.200.53.249 but that's it.
Dynamic routing brings up the route in the routing table, but I can't pass traffic in or out of that connection.
Finally, this end user is on a VLAN if that matters. I've tried to assign the route via the physical interface as well as the VLAN interface
What am I doing wrong?
Arthur